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factchecker

Joined: 02/26/2021 Posts: 127
Likes: 188


See comment to bufffan below, but this is the same thing.


The entire argument hinges on the belief that Republicans primary objective is to restrict voting because they are evil (authoritarian racists). Because that premise is so willingly accepted with little to no consideration that it might not be true, then of course, everything that follows is an example of that.

Why reduce the amount of time to request an absentee ballot from 180 to 78 days prior to the election? I haven't spent any time considering what good reasons there might be to do this, or if 78 days is ample time to request an absentee ballot, but I do know Republicans are evil racist authoritarians, so that must be the it! Now prove me wrong!

If you want to talk about why 180 days is necessary to request an absentee ballot in Georgia, make that argument. Why was it 180 days and why was that better? Just because it was more? Who specifically is negatively impacted by this reduction and how?

(In response to this post by The Midnight Toker)

Posted: 04/06/2021 at 2:27PM



+5

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